AERO GATE TOPPER
General Instructions:
- The total duration of the examination is 180 minutes (3 hours).
- The clock will be set on the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of the screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.
- To answer a question, do the following:
Navigating to a Question:
- To answer a question, do the following:
- Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question directly.
- Select an answer for a multiple-choice type question. Use the virtual numeric keypad to enter a number as the answer for a numerical-type question.
- Click on Save and Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next question.
- Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate to another question directly by clicking on its question number.
- You can view all the questions by clicking the Question Paper button. Note that the options for multiple-choice type questions will not be shown.
- Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:
- To select your answer, click on the button on one of the options
- To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again
- To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option
- To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Next button
- Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:
- To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad
- A fraction (eg.,-0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without ‘0’ before the decimal point
- To clear your answer, click on the Clear button
- To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Next button
- To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.
- There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or numerical answer type. A multiple-choice type question will have four choices for the answer with only one correct choice. The answer is a number for numerical answer-type questions, and no choices will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.
- Questions Q.1 – Q.10 belong to the General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.6 – Q.10 carry 2 marks each.
- Questions Q. 11 – Q.35 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.36 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
- Questions not attempted will result in zero marks. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, 1⁄3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 2⁄3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for the wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for the wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type.
- A calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
- Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.
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GATE Aerospace Mock Test
The unruly crowd demanded that the accused be _____________ without trial.
If A can complete a work in 20 days and B can complete the same work in 30 days, then how many days will it take for A and B together to complete the work?
A window is made up of a square portion and an equilateral triangle portion above it. The base of the triangular portion coincides with the upper side of the square. If the perimeter of the window is 6 m, the area of the window in m2 is ___________
Michael lives 10 km away from where I live. Ahmed lives 5 km away and Susan lives 7 km away from where I live. Arun is farther away than Ahmed but closer than Susan from where I live. From the information provided here, what is one possible distance (in km) at which I live from Arun’s place ?
Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to grammar and usage? Mount Everest is ____________.
A person moving through a tuberculosis prone zone has a 50% probability of becoming infected. However, only 30% of infected people develop the disease. What percentage of people moving through a tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but does not show symptoms of disease?
Leela is older than her cousin Pavithra. Pavithra’s brother Shiva is older than Leela. When Pavithra and Shiva are visiting Leela, all three like to play chess. Pavithra wins more often than Leela does. Which one of the following statements must be TRUE based on the above?
P, Q, R and S are working on a project. Q can finish the task in 25 days, working alone for 12 hours a day. R can finish the task in 50 days, working alone for 12 hours per day. Q worked 12 hours a day but took sick leave in the beginning for two days. R worked 18 hours a day on all days. What is the ratio of work done by Q and R after 7 days from the start of the project?
If q-a = 1/r and r-b = 1/s and s-c = 1/q, the value of abc is __________
A car travels from point A to B at a speed of 60 km/hr and returns from B to A at a speed of 40 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car during the whole journey?
11. If φ(x)= \( \int_{0}^{x^2} \sqrt{t} \,dt \) then dφ/dx = ___
12. The value of \( \lim_{{x \to 0}} \frac{{1-cos(x^2)}}{{2x^4}} \)
The Newton- Raphson method is to be used to find the root of the equation and f’(x) is
The necessary and sufficient condition for the differential equation of the form M(x,y)dx+ N(x,y) dy = 0 to be exact is
Solve for y if \( \frac{d^2 y}{dt^2} \)+2\( \frac{dy}{dt} \)+y = 0 with y(0)=1 and y'(0)= -2
16. A Newtonian fluid has the following velocity field:
V = x2yi + xy
The combustion process in a pulse-jet engine during ideal operation is:
The shape of a subsonic diffuser that slows down a subsonic flow to supersonic flow is
Which of the following statement is false with regards to Kutta condition for flow past airfoils?
What does the negative limit load factor represent in a V-n diagram?
Suppose that the eigen values of matrix A are 1, 2, 4. The determinant of (A-1)T is ____
The error in numerically computing the integral \[ \int_{0}^{\pi} (sin{x}+cos{x}) \,dx\] using the trapezoidal rule with three intervals of equal length between 0 and π is __________
An unpowered glider is flying at a glide angle of 10 degrees. Its lift-to-drag ratio is (round off to two decimal places).
In a static test, a turbofan engine with bypass ratio of 9 has core hot exhaust speed 1.5 times that of fan exhaust speed. The engine is operated at a fuel to air ratio of f = 0.03. Both the fan and the core streams have no pressure thrust. The ratio of fan thrust to thrust from the core engine is _____ (round off to one decimal place).
An aircraft weighing 10000 N is flying level at 100 m/s and it is powered by a jet engine. The thrust required for level flight is 1000 N. The maximum possible thrust produced by the jet engine is 5000 N. The minimum time required to climb 1000 m, when flight speed is 100 m/s, is ________s.
The governing differential equation of motion of a damped system is given by m(d2x/dt2)+c(dx/dt)+k = 0 . If m = 1 kg, c = 2 Ns/m and k = 2 N/m then the frequency of the damped oscillation of this system is ____ rad/s.
The stagnation pressures at the inlet and exit of a subsonic intake are 100 kPa and 98 kPa, respectively. The pressure recovery of this intake will be ______ (accurate to two decimal places).
A combustor is operating with a fuel-air ratio of 0.03. If the stoichiometric fuel-air ratio of the fuel used is 0.06, the equivalence ratio of the combustor will be _______ (accurate to two decimal places).
A spacecraft forms a circular orbit at an altitude of 150 km above the surface of a spherical Earth. Assuming the gravitational parameter, μ = 3.986 × 1014> m3 /s2 and radius of earth, RE = 6,400 km, the velocity required for the injection of the spacecraft, parallel to the local horizon, is _______________ .
The sytem of equations
x-2y+az = 0
2x+y-4z = 0
x-y+z = 0
has a non-trivial solution for a = ____ (Answer in integer)
What of the the following statement(s) is/are true about harmonically excited forced vibration of a single degree of freedom linear spring mass damper system?
How does the propulsion efficiency of a ramjet engine, operating at a given Temperature and a given Altitude, change with increase in compressor pressure ratio?
Across an moving normal shock wave in a calorifically perfect gas, property does not change?
A cantilever beam having a rectangular cross-section of width 60 mm and depth 100 mm, is made of aluminum alloy. The material mechanical properties are: Young’s modulus, E = 73 GPa and ultimate stress, σu = 480 MPa. Assuming a factor of safety of 4, the maximum bending moment (in kN-m) that can be applied on the beam is _____ (accurate to one decimal place).
An axial compressor rotor with 50 % degree of reaction, operates with an axial velocity of 200 m/s. The absolute flow angle at the inlet of the rotor is 22o with reference to the axial direction. If the axial velocity is assumed to remain constant through the rotor, the magnitude of the relative velocity (in m/s) at the rotor exit is __________ (accurate to one decimal place).
An aircraft wind tunnel model, having a pitch axis mass moment of inertia (Iyy) of 0.014 kg-m2, is mounted in such a manner that it has pure pitching motion about its centre of gravity, where it is supported through a frictionless hinge. If the pitching moment (M) derivative with respect to angle of attack (α), denoted by ‘Mα’, is -0.504 N-m/rad and the pitching moment (M) derivative with respect to pitch rate (q), denoted by ‘Mq’, is -0.0336 N-m/(rad/s), the damping ratio of the resulting motion due to an initial disturbance in pitch angle is approximately _________ (accurate to three decimal places).
The relative velocity of air leaving a straight radial impeller of a centrifugal compressor is 100 m/s. If the impeller tip speed is 200 m/s, for a slip free operation, the absolute velocity (in m/s) at the impeller exit is _________ (accurate to one decimal place).
The boundary layer thickness at the location of a sensor on a flat plate in an incompressible, laminar flow of air is required to be restricted to 1 mm for an effective measurement. If the flow velocity is 20 m/s with 1 bar pressure, 300 K temperature, and 1.789×10-5 kg/(m-s) viscosity, the maximum distance (in mm) of the sensor location from the leading edge is ________ (accurate to one decimal place).
Consider a 20o half-angle wedge in a supersonic flow at Mach 3.0 at standard sea-level conditions. If the shock-wave angle on the wedge is 36o, the Mach number of the tangential component of the flow post-shock is _______ (accurate to two decimal places).
A pitot probe on an aircraft in a steady, level flight records a pressure of 55,000 N/m2. The static pressure and density are 45,280 N/m2 and 0.6 kg/m3, respectively. The wing area and the lift coefficient are 16 m2 and 2, respectively. The wing loading (in N/m2 ) on this aircraft is _________ (accurate to one decimal place).
Two solid shafts P and Q made of same material transmit equal torque. Shaft P has a uniform circular cross section A and shaft Q has a uniform circular cross section of area 4A. If the maximum torsional shear stress developed in shaft P is 160 MPa, the maximum torsional shear stress developed (in MPa) in shaft Q is ____
The state of stress at a point in a body under plane stress condition is given as σx=5MPa, σy=-1MPa and τxy=4MPa. If one of the principal stresses at that point is 7 MPa, then the other non-zero principal stress (in MPa) is _____
An aircraft with twin jet engines has the following specifications: Thrust produced (per engine) = 8000 N Spanwise distance between the two engines = 10 m Wing area = 50 m2, Wing span = 10 m Rudder effectiveness, Cnδr = −0. 002 /deg Density of air at sea level = 1.225 kg/m3 The rudder deflection, in degrees, required to maintain zero sideslip at 100 m/s in steady and level flight at sea level with a non-functional right engine is ________ (round off to two decimal places).
An aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 kg, has a speed of 130 m/s at sea level, where the conditions are: 1 atmosphere (pressure), 288 K (temperature), and 1.23 kg/m3 (density). The speed (in m/s) required by the aircraft at an altitude of 9000 m, where the conditions are: 0.31 atmosphere, 230 K, and 0.47 kg/m3, to maintain a steady, level flight is ________ (accurate to two decimal places).
The components of stress in a body under plane stress condition, in the absence of body forces, is given by: σxx = Ax2; σyy = 12x2-6y2 and σxy = 12xy. The coefficient, A, such that the body is under equilibrium is _____ (accurate to one decimal place).
A thin-walled tube with external radius of 100 mm and wall thickness of 2 mm, is fixed at one end. It is subjected to a compressive force of 1 N acting at a point on the circumference parallel to its length. The maximum normal stress (in kPa) experienced by the structure is _____________ (accurate to two decimal places).
Gross weight of an airplane is 7000 N, wing area is 16 m2, and the maximum lift coefficient is 2.0. Assuming density at the altitude as 1.23 kg/m3, the stall speed (in m/s) of the aircraft is _________ (accurate to two decimal places).
Flow-separation from a solid surface may take place if the flow is:
The kind of fracture surface observed in a brittle specimen that fails under a uniaxial tensile test is:
Which of thr following statement(s) is/are true about the ribs of an airplane wing with semi-monocoque construction?
Which of the following statement(s) about the elastic flexural buckling load of columns is/are correct?
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the state of stress in a plane?
From the opions given. select all that are true for turbofan engines with afterburners.
The idealized cross section of a thin walled wing box structure shown in the figure is subjected to an anticlockwise torque of 10 kNm. The corresponding shear flow distribution under this loading condition is hown in the figure. The area of each cell is A1=300x103 mm2 and A2=250x103 mm2. The ratio of the unknowns x/y is given by ______ (in three decimal places).
The roots obtained by solving longitudinal characteristic equations of motion for a statically stable aircraft are given below:
λ1,2=-0.02 ± 0.30i, λ3,4=-2.00 ± 2.50i, where i=√-1
the undaped shord-period longitudinal natural frequency (radians/sec) and damping ratio. in that order, are close to
An aircraft landing gear can be idealized as a single degree of freedom spring mass damper system. The desirable damping characteristics of such a system is:
Which one of the following modes of a stable aircraft has non-oscillatory response characteristics?
A rocket nozzle is designed to produce maximum thrust at an altitude, H = 8 km from sea level. The nozzle operates in
A statically stable trimmed aircraft experiences a gust and the angle of attack reduces momentarily. As a result, the center of pressure of the aircraft
The function y=x3-x has
The stoichiometric fuel to air ratio in an aircraft engine combustor varies with the compressor pressure ratio as follows:
AERO GATE TOPPER
Aptitude
Core
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| Quiz Name | Score | Time Spend (Approx.) | Correct | Incorrect | Unattempted |
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| Mock Test | Calculating... | Calculating... | Calculating... | Calculating... | Calculating... |